Con Law in 12,008
Here’s another post inspired by my week in
(1) If we were just starting our collective project of constitutional interpretation today, this argument would have some force. However, we inherit the Constitution along with a long history of its use—including a tradition of changes in constitutional meaning without changes in the constitutional text. Against this historical background, as a descriptive matter, the best account of Article V is that it provides the exclusive mechanism for changing the text, but that it does not preclude flexible interpretation by political actors and the courts. Indeed, one might even draw this inference in part from Article V itself. In a fascinating paper, Tom Ginsburg presented empirical evidence about the lifetime of constitutions. The average lifespan of a constitution is only 17 years. The
(2) Originalism is sometimes offered on the ground that it provides substantially greater restraint on judges than non-originalist modes of interpretation. Whatever the truth of this claim with respect to the old originalism, it is not a claim defended by the new originalists, who tend to acknowledge that the new originalism does not resolve many of the most contentious constitutional questions. Nonetheless, they urge originalism on linguistic and political theory grounds---and in fairness, the old originalists made similar points. The basic argument is this: The Constitution is law because it was adopted by democratically legitimate processes, and so the meaning of the Constitution should be the meaning produced by those processes, rather than a meaning substituted for them by unelected judges.
The difficulty with this argument is its premise that the original act of ratification is what makes the Constitution law today. It doesn't. What makes the Constitution law today is the fact that it is accepted as law today. Imagine that, notwithstanding Ginsburg's data, the U.S. Constitution persists for at least another 10,000 years (by which time, according to Sen. McCain, the U.S. could still have troops in Iraq, but I digress). What would make the Constitution the legitimate law of the U.S. in 12,008, binding on our descendants and the intelligent metal bugs who have also been made "persons" by the 28th Amendment? The act of ratification in 1789? The very idea is ridiculous. To be sure, a consensus might exist that our descendants and the metal bug people look to the 1789 original understanding as a way of resolving constitutional disputes, but if so, that 12,008 consensus, not the 1789 ratification itself, will be the legitimating act.
And so, it seems to me, in 2008: One can argue for reading the Constitution to mean what it meant in 1789 on the grounds that this will be better for us than reading it any other way. But one cannot simply say that this reading is commanded by the fact that it was adopted then.
Posted by Mike Dorf